hi,
Taylor claims that universal moral commitments—Universalism, the commitment to complete equality of rights leads to a commitment, a need, to treat people differently. He says…. Why does he think this? How can his view here seem, in part, to arise from the views of Kant, Mill and Rawls? Still Taylor does not think that any old difference between people can lead to the right to be treated differently. Why does he think this? What are the constraints, according to Taylor, on the sorts of differences that must be respected? How is Taylor’s view like, or different than, Rorty’s that “we must be ethnocentric”? As illustrations of points made in your essay, feel free to appeal to cases: marriage by capture, the king’s horseman,

Note: Please keep it Simple and Sweet due to English is my second language